Posted by Ray Kidder on 8/27/2009, 9:36 pm, in reply to "Re: During the book of Acts"
98.204.216.96
Searcher,
Most of your post seems somewhat correct, except that I do not see how salvation is by faith alone, since this contradicts James 2:14-26. I do not know why salvation is said to be by anything alone, as the word alone is seldom used by the epistle writers. This passage from James 2 (NKJV) also reminds me of your post, for you mentioned how the law of Moses is such a burdensome thing:
8 If you really fulfill the royal law according to the Scripture, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself,” you do well;
9 but if you show partiality, you commit sin, and are convicted by the law as transgressors.
10 For whoever shall keep the whole law, and yet stumble in one point, he is guilty of all.
11 For He who said, “Do not commit adultery,” also said, “Do not murder.” Now if you do not commit adultery, but you do murder, you have become a transgressor of the law.
12 So speak and so do as those who will be judged by the law of liberty.
13 For judgment is without mercy to the one who has shown no mercy. Mercy triumphs over judgment.
From this passage, we read of how the principle of loving one's neighbor as himself is the key to the fulfillment of the law. A lot of this fulfillment involves the humility of not being judgmental and condescending; right? This love does not produce things like a kosher diet, circumcision of the flesh, observances of new moon celebrations, and legalistic forms of tithing. The acts of one who loves his neighbor as himself are the parts of the law that are required of Christians; right?
I was thinking that perhaps the greater emphasis of the evangelization towards the Jews in the early chapters of Acts was because the Jews knew a lot more about the Old Testament than the gentiles did. It would be like having a choice of preaching a commitment to the following of Jesus Christ to either nominal Christians or Hindus. Nominal Christians are at least familiar with the life of Jesus, are monotheistic, and have some knowledge of much of the Bible. Hindus believe in many gods, and may know comparatively little about the life of Jesus.
I remember recently reading that the Samaritans believed in the Torah, and some of their ancestors were members of the lost tribes of Israel. Because of their limited knowledge of the Old Testament, they probably seemed more receptive to the gospel as compared to (say) gentiles who were worshipers of Greek and Roman gods. That is why we read of these steps in evangelization in Acts 1 (NKJV):
8 But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you; and you shall be witnesses to Me in Jerusalem, and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.”
9 Now when He had spoken these things, while they watched, He was taken up, and a cloud received Him out of their sight.
It seems like the order of Jerusalem, Judea, Samaria, and beyond corresponds to decreasing familiarity with the Old Testament.
Is there some reason why the body of Christ has to have Jews within it, in order to be the body of Christ that was originally intended by God?
Ray Kidder
Message Thread:
« Back to thread