Posted by Ray Kidder on 8/26/2009, 8:17 pm
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Dear Readers,
I was reading a post from Searcher on the subject of whether or not a new dispensation occured circa Acts 28, due to the continued rejection of Jesus by the Jews. The thread was moving far to the right.
This passage from the end of Mark's gospel in chapter 16 (NKJV) comes to mind:
15 And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature.
16 He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned.
17 And these signs will follow those who believe: In My name they will cast out demons; they will speak with new tongues;
18 they will take up serpents; and if they drink anything deadly, it will by no means hurt them; they will lay hands on the sick, and they will recover.”
19 So then, after the Lord had spoken to them, He was received up into heaven, and sat down at the right hand of God.
20 And they went out and preached everywhere, the Lord working with them and confirming the word through the accompanying signs. Amen.
In verse 15, Jesus directed His disciples to preach the gospel throughtout the world to every creature. This has to mean both Jews and gentiles; right?
OTOH, even in the Book of Acts, there are verses that suggest there still was a special emphasis on Jewish conversion to Christianity. Here in Acts 10 (NKJV) there seems to be a great turning point in which the emphasis was turned more to gentiles:
34 Then Peter opened his mouth and said: “In truth I perceive that God shows no partiality.
35 But in every nation whoever fears Him and works righteousness is accepted by Him.
36 The word which God sent to the children of Israel, preaching peace through Jesus Christ—He is Lord of all—
37 that word you know, which was proclaimed throughout all Judea, and began from Galilee after the baptism which John preached:
38 how God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Spirit and with power, who went about doing good and healing all who were oppressed by the devil, for God was with Him.
39 And we are witnesses of all things which He did both in the land of the Jews and in Jerusalem, whom they killed by hanging on a tree.
40 Him God raised up on the third day, and showed Him openly,
41 not to all the people, but to witnesses chosen before by God, even to us who ate and drank with Him after He arose from the dead.
42 And He commanded us to preach to the people, and to testify that it is He who was ordained by God to be Judge of the living and the dead.
43 To Him all the prophets witness that, through His name, whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins.”
44 While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who heard the word.
45 And those of the circumcision who believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also.
46 For they heard them speak with tongues and magnify God.
Then Peter answered,
47 “Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?”
48 And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then they asked him to stay a few days.
Then in the next chapter (NKJV), we read the following:
19 Now those who were scattered after the persecution that arose over Stephen traveled as far as Phoenicia, Cyprus, and Antioch, preaching the word to no one but the Jews only.
Yet, back in Acts 8 (NKJV), we read how Samaritans were being converted to Christianity:
14 Now when the apostles who were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent Peter and John to them,
15 who, when they had come down, prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit.
16 For as yet He had fallen upon none of them. They had only been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
17 Then they laid hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit.
Weren't the Samaritans believers in the Torah, such that they belived in the need for a kosher diet and circumcision?
Isn't it possible that the reason many were limiting their preaching to the Jews was the belief that a person must first convert to Judaism in order to convert to Christianity? This may explain why the need for a kosher diet and circumcision was believed among some members of the Church until St. Peter and St. Paul explained why these were not needed to live a Christian life. Without the need for circumcision and a kosher diet, gentiles could convert without having to become Jewish first; right?
Any comments or answers would be appreciated.
Ray Kidder
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