Posted by Ray Kidder on 8/18/2009, 9:33 pm, in reply to "Re: Wisdom from God through men"
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Searcher,
I admit that St. matthew wrote his gospel with Jewish readers in mind, and that he records events in Jesus's life when it appeared that the second covenant was for Jews only. However, in Matthew 25 (NKJV), we also read the following:
31 “When the Son of Man comes in His glory, and all the holy angels with Him, then He will sit on the throne of His glory.
32 All the nations will be gathered before Him, and He will separate them one from another, as a shepherd divides his sheep from the goats.
33 And He will set the sheep on His right hand, but the goats on the left.
34 Then the King will say to those on His right hand, ‘Come, you blessed of My Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:
35 for I was hungry and you gave Me food; I was thirsty and you gave Me drink; I was a stranger and you took Me in;
36 I was naked and you clothed Me; I was sick and you visited Me; I was in prison and you came to Me.’
Verse 32 mentions how all nations will be gathered for the day of judgement. Doesn't this imply that by this time, the Kingdom of Heaven was directed to all people (both Jews and gentiles)?
Back in Matthew 7 (NKJV), we read these words from Jesus:
7 “Ask, and it will be given to you; seek, and you will find; knock, and it will be opened to you.
8 For everyone who asks receives, and he who seeks finds, and to him who knocks it will be opened.
Don't these words apply to all people, even though we presume that most or all of the original listeners were Jewish?
This is from the end of Matthew's gospel in chapter 28 (NKJV):
18 And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth.
19 Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit,
20 teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age.” Amen.
Isn't verse 19 directed to all people of all nations?
Going back to this passage from James 1 (NKJV):
5 If any of you lacks wisdom, let him ask of God, who gives to all liberally and without reproach, and it will be given to him.
6 But let him ask in faith, with no doubting, for he who doubts is like a wave of the sea driven and tossed by the wind.
7 For let not that man suppose that he will receive anything from the Lord;
8 he is a double-minded man, unstable in all his ways.
It is my understanding that this epistle was originally written to Jewish Christians, but why would it not apply just as much to gentile Christians?
You mentioned Matthew 15:22-28. Even though Jesus had been sent to the Jews, and had been classifying gentiles as being outside of His ministry at that time, the woman still received the blessing from Jesus. I do not think Jesus sinned by healing her daughter from the demonic influence, but rather Jesus praised her for her faith in the face of the frustrating words that she initially heard. This passage teaches how God will answer the prayers of those who at first seem to be outside of the scope of His help; right?
If you claim that James 1:5 does not petain to gentile Christians, arn't you promoting something that is the opposite of what St. James was trying to teach about coming to God in faith? Wasn't Rahab the harlot as an example of how God respects the faith of gentiles, as mentioned in Hebrews 11:31?
Ray Kidder
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