Posted by Ray Kidder on 7/11/2009, 9:29 am
98.204.216.96
Dear Readers,
There was a thread that was getting too far over to the right, so I have responded to Searcher with a new thread.
In a recent post, Searcher wrote:
"Chapter 7 of Romans is addressed specifically to Paul's 'brethren', i.e. to the Jews who were given the law. (See Ro 7:1)Other than the four ordinances in Acts 15:19,20, the Gentiles were saved by faith alone and not by works of the law."
Why do many Protestants insert the word "alone" after faith when speaking of salvation? St. Paul seldom used the word "alone" when writing his epistles, and when he does use the word "alone", it is sometimes preceeded with the word "not".
Also, Searcher mentioned Romans 7:1 to state that this chapter was written to Jews. Here is this verse (NKJV):
1 Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives?
Yet Searcher also mentioned these verses in Romans 11 (NKJV):
13 For I speak to you Gentiles; inasmuch as I am an apostle to the Gentiles, I magnify my ministry,
14 if by any means I may provoke to jealousy those who are my flesh and save some of them.
15 For if their being cast away is the reconciling of the world, what will their acceptance be but life from the dead?
It seems to me that Romans was written to both Jewish and Gentile Christians, with more emphasis to gentile Christians. Gentile Christians often learn the law; right?
Ray Kidder
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