Posted by jimB on 6/7/2009, 8:39 am, in reply to "The Law in Romans 2 by N.T. Wright"
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Ray,
Nice piece of research spotting Bishop Tom's comments on Romans on-line! 
I think it is clear that he agrees that in part of what we call chapter 2 the text refers to Gentile Converts.
One thing I have learned about +Tom's writing is that is very dense. That is he puts a lot into every word or sentence. So he may have other thoughts on other parts or for that matter in other works. At least, unlike the ABC, he writes in English!
It is also clear he agrees with Sanders that the 'chapter' falls outside the structure of the letter, which is very interesting. Does Sanders, or for that matter Wright think there is a redaction / insertion here? I am planning to follow up by reading a couple of Sanders' books a bit earlier than they had been scheduled on my reading list. (There goes the budget!)
What happens when one begins to do some serious thinking about the Scriptures is these questions crop up. I have come to understand that we know a lot less about the formation and actual content of Scriptures than some think we do. 
You might wonder if those questions mitigate against a 'high view' of Scripture. Nope, in fact the exact opposite is true.
Now the question arises: given that the last part of 'chapter' 2 seems to refer to Gentile Christians circa 50-60 CE, what are the implications? As this is your research and you are quoting one of my favorite authors, I await your thoughts with interest.
FWIW
jimB
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