Posted by Joyce on 11/21/2006, 1:56 pm, in reply to "Re: Election, Pre-destination, & Foreknowledge" No, not for one minute did I mean to imply that you were minimizing God's sovereignity. If that was inferred, I apologize. You wrote that God does predestine according to foreknowledge. I believe that God does foreknow. I believe that He does predestine. But I don't see a connection. I think It is also important to know that just because God knows someone by name that does not necessarily mean that God means for that person to be saved. For example, Cyrus, the King of Persia who let the captives go to Jerusalem to who rebuild the city was said that his name was known by God. But it wasn't for the purpose of his salvation, it was for the purpose of letting His people free from captivity. As the paper on my web-site will show, choosing and election are not always unto salvation. For example Israel was a chosen nation, but they weren't chosen to be saved, they were chosen to fulfill the purposes of God. The same is true of the tribe of Levites. In fact you suggested Eph. 1:5, "Having predestined us unto the adoption of children.....". This does not say that we were predestined to be saved. It says that we, as believers/saved ones, were predestined to be His children. This discussion, as you know, has been going on for well over a hundred years. In my opinion there are two reasons that this discussion continues and for most unresloved. 1) The discussion begins with and centers on the NT. The NT is an outgrowth of the OT. 2) It is assumesd that predestination or choosing or election is always unto salvation. I believe it is always unto service to God, and sometimes that service requires one to be saved. Just a few thoughts. In Christ,
152.163.101.8
Dear Chris,
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