Posted by Amir on 6/23/2009, 2:25 pm, in reply to "Re: Jesus' Divinity 6"
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Matthew 1 clearly doesn't state that Jehovah was going to be born from Mary the Virgin.
The angel told her that she will have a miracle by becoming pregnant without intercourse,and she will bring a holy person to life.
Luke 1:34 - 1:35
"But Mary said to the angel: How is this to be, since I am having no intercourse with a man? In answer the angel said to her: Holy Spirit will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you. For that reason also what is born will be called holy,God's Son."
""""Once you recognize that Jesus was more than an ordinary human, you are well on your way to understanding the incarnation.""""
Yes i believe he was not a normal human.A prophet is not a normal human and he was a great prophet.
""""When the king "worships" Daniel, he, the king, gives the credit to God, not to Daniel."""""
The king did praise God but the texts clearly said that he prostrated before Daniel.Now as far as i know God doesn t tell us to prostrate before a human.The king prostrated before Daniel thus 'worshipping".
U also rightly said that the words are different.That s what i was mentinning earlier.The "worship" mentionned here is accompanied by physical "prayers" and in this case its prosternation.Its different from that of the prophecy which doesn t mean to pray to but rather "to serve".
""""Because words do not always carry exactly the same connotations in different languages, a slightly paraphrased translation is often more accurate than a literal translation. I see no problem with the English translation here.""""
U missed the point.The translators chose to add the word "he" after the beggar's statement but not after that of Jesus.Why?
The translation should be the same for both.
""""Even this literal translation is not exactly like the Greek since the two English words “he is” are necessary to literally translate one Greek word. This literal translation carries exactly the same meaning that the NIV conveys. In other words, the standard English translations are correct.""""
The Greek word (eimi (i-mee')) is translated as "I" in Matthew 26:22:
"And they [the disciples] were exceeding sorrowful, and began every one of them to say unto him, Lord, is it I?"
However, if we want to translate this word as "I am" when Jesus says it then we need to be honest and consistent and translate it the exact same way when the disciples say it too.In such a case, Matthew 26:22 would be translated as follows:
"And they [the disciples] were exceeding sorrowful, and began every one of them to say unto him,Lord,is it I AM?"
So,if we were to follow these translator's chosen "translation" techniques, shall we now claim that the disciples are God?
"""" Thus not only did He claim preexistance, but He simultaneously applied God's name to Himself. """"
Exodus 3:4 reads:
"And when the LORD saw that he turned aside to see, God called unto him out of the midst of the bush, and said, Moses, Moses. And he said, Here I am."
So Moses is God also?
"""Amir your frustration is showing. How could you possibly know that Jesus was ignorant of Greek?""""
Aramaic speaking people in the time of Jesus considered it sinful to speak any other language.This had to be true because the Aramaic Estrangelo Script was the lingua franca in Palestine at the time of Jesus.Aramaic in this script is similar to Arabic and this was the language of commerce and industry.A growing number of scholars now recognize that Jesus spoke this form of Aramaic,not Greek.
He may have had a limited grasp of Greek but there is no question that he could have spken fluent greek.
""""Uthman is the one who burned manuscripts of the Koran which disagreed with his chosen copy.""""
Not only his chosen copy,he asked for advice from other companions and since they also knew the Quran by heart they could eliminate any variantion in the texts.he did not accomplish this task on his own.
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