Posted by Amir on 6/14/2009, 9:15 am, in reply to "NIV Defended"
41.212.202.65
""Amir, undoubtedly you are sincere, however, you have made a strong statement which is not supported by evidence.""
I would not make such a claim without evidence.
Here the Hebrew translation:And the Lord wished to crush him, He made him ill; if his soul would acknowledge guilt, he shall have descendants [or, he shall see progeny], he shall prolong his days, and God’s purpose shall prosper in his hand. From the toil of his soul HE SHALL SEE [and he shall] be satisfied; with his knowledge My servant will vindicate the righteous before the multitudes, and their iniquities he shall carry. Therefore, I will allot him a portion among the multitudes, and with the mighty he shall share booty, because he has bared his soul to death, and with transgressors he was counted; and he bore the sin of many, and he will [continue to] to intercede for the transgressors. (Isaiah 53:10-12)
In bold are the concerned words.
There is a clear difference between "he shall see" and "he shall see the light of life"
and this is the point i brought up.These is no question that it would be more accurate to insert these words because as can be seen, they give a different interpretation of the text.
""Fortunately, they did not make up this phrase as you believe. Instead, they brought it in from the text of Isaiah found in the Dead Sea scrolls. This phrase is also found in the Septuagent.""
The words light of life do not appear in the Septuagint Masoretic Text.
""When I ask where's the goodness in Islam, what I was asking is what new understanding of God can I find from Islam which is not already available in Christianity.""
Islam preaches pure monotheism. The absolute fundamental of Islam is that God alone (what Christians refer to as God the Father) is the sole deity. Surah 112 of the Quran is quite explicit about this:
He is God, the only One,
God the Everlasting.
He did not beget and is not begotten,
And none is His equal.
This hapter of the Quran is a definition of God.If anyone or anything fulfils this criterai,only then can he be God.
""Amir you have asked for more witnesses. This is not the only instance in which the Patriarchs saw Jehovah. Moses saw Him."
"The LORD would speak to Moses face to face , as a man speaks with his friend.""
The phrase "face to face" is not used here to refer to their physical position in relation to one another, but the intimate nature of the God's discourse with Moses.
Deuteronomy 34:10 says that the God "knew" Moses "face to face".Again, the phrase "face to face" is not being used of physical position, but of their relationship.How did GOD know Moses face to face? The following verses tells us, "In all the signs and the wonders, which the LORD sent him to do in the land of Egypt to Pharaoh, and to all his servants, and to all his land, and in all that mighty hand, and in all the great terror which Moses shewed in the sight of all Israel."(34:11-12).
Note that in the text we do not find the word "see" or anything which is interchangeable with it.
""If we accept Jesus’ statement that no one has seen the Father, then who is this Jehovah who Abraham and Moses saw?""
As i mentionned above we can accept his statement and yet explain it.Are u telling me that we shoud reject Jesus'(pbuh) statement?
" And Moses says, Manifest thyself to me. And God said, I will pass by before thee WITH MY GLORY.."
Yes God will show them his glory,not himself, because God cannot be seen,and no man can see God's face,because if you do you shall then die.
It is clear Moses just saw the glory of God;he did not even say a small glimpse of God.The verses are clear, that no man can see God, and that no man can see God's face.The Bible makes it clear that no man can see God at anytime,so if it is otherwise then that wuld mean the texts are wrong.
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